This is an interesting question that despite getting many political incorrectness cries, several bloggists and reporters have recently been addressing and investigating.
According to the New York Times, from a study done by Northeastern University Â
                           “…in 2007, single-parent families were nearly six times more likely to be poor than married-parent families; that ratio has not significantly changed.†  The Times also goes on to say, “…blacks and Hispanics have the highest rates of child poverty.â€
Blacks and Hispanics have illegitimacy rates of 69% and 42%, respectively. (Table 9)
Heather Mac Donald and her recent article on Child Poverty, MSM Ignores the Basic Truth (September 21, 2011) thinks so…
as does Joy Pullman in her recent article, How Moral Failure Causes Child Poverty.
Is it true? Is poverty actually just a ‘structural problem†as Charles Murray claims in his book, The Underclass Revisited, which explores and examines “statistics on illegitimacy, criminality, and the dropout rate from the labor force for four checkpoints from 1954 to 1997.†?
(Incidentally if you’re interested, you can read Charles entire book in PDF FORM here)
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So what do you think?
Does Moral failure really cause poverty?
Is poverty more a 'structural problem' than a economical one?Â
If it's true, what might some new solutions be?
If not, what does cause poverty?
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